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What Really Separates A PL From DMPL?

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zakgold's Avatar
United States
382 Posts
 Posted 04/09/2005  9:53 pm Show Profile   Bookmark this topic Add zakgold to your friends list Get a Link to this Message Number of Subscribers
As all of the talk we have had on strikes, grading, toning, etc., will somebody (I'm counting on you MorganFred) give me "your" basics of Proof Like versus Deep Mirror Proof Like for Morgan dollars?

Obviously DMPL is worth more than PL with Deep Mirrors and all...BUT what makes one jump to DMPL over the a PL grade?

I just picked up a 1903-O Morgan MS64PL graded by NGC. I fell for the coin (okay, I'll admit it...I'm easy) at the coin show over the weekend and after reading David Bower's complete guide to Morgan silver dollars, I thought the story about the 1962 bank vault discovery was pretty cool. Even after reading his section on DMPL and PL and MS all from the same grade and year...(page 90)...it still can rack your brain. Considering that these 1903-O's were selling for $1,500 in 1962 dollars for Uncircuated grades...I have been searching for decent looking New Orlean strikes. New Orlean's quality control was pretty sloppy compared to other mints like San Francisco, so I was on the hunt for this historic coin in a better than 63 grade.

Well I got a 1903-O MS64PL and after checking Grey sheets, Coin Values, etc., I am happy with my buy...but I still will like to have a better understanding of PL and the line to DMPL. Also, is it possible for a MS Morgan in the same 64 grade to be worth more than the same Morgan in a 64PL grade?

Guess since I can't see the "red" of Lincolns, I better sharp up my Morgan skills.
Rest in Peace
Mike's Avatar
United States
2884 Posts
 Posted 04/10/2005  12:47 am  Show Profile   Bookmark this reply Add Mike to your friends list Get a Link to this Reply
Zakgold, I Will defer to the pro's on your initial question but would like to ask if your question about the MS64 possibly being worth more than the 64PL is based on seeing that reflected in some pricing guides. I understand the value difference in some MS's being greater than proofs but not what I have seen as it relates to your question. I'm confused by that as well but have seen it that way many times. I'll be anxious to hear why that is. Thanks, Mike
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