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1938 - 1952 Jefferson Nickels D Vs. S

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unholyroller's Avatar
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 Posted 02/17/2012  09:27 am Show Profile   Bookmark this topic Add unholyroller to your friends list Get a Link to this Message Number of Subscribers
I am new to nickel collecting and I am well versed that rarity doesn't mandate value. I was just hoping someone could enlighten me to the technical reason(s) why Jefferson nickels in the 38-52 date range have D mint coins run higher values than S mint coins of the same year. Some years the mintage is quite different yet the more populous D mint brings significantly more. Any light a member can shed on the technical reason why would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advace
Edited by unholyroller
02/17/2012 1:21 pm
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charlesjcoin's Avatar
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 Posted 02/17/2012  09:36 am  Show Profile   Bookmark this reply Add charlesjcoin to your friends list Get a Link to this Reply
I am not sure of the technical reason but from my limited experience collecting high grade coins you can look at it from a logical idea. It is much easier to find a high grade proof because those were made for collectors and are kept in a proof holder. But when your looking at the P and D from that long ago it is much harder to find one in good condition thus making the price higher. For example a 1939d Jefferson in MS65 has a $110 book value. A 1939s has a $40 book value.
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wquinn's Avatar
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 Posted 02/17/2012  09:46 am  Show Profile   Bookmark this reply Add wquinn to your friends list Get a Link to this Reply
For some reason more people saved the S mint coins rather than the D mint coins.

Sometimes when there is a large mintage, people think, no point in saving any, since there were so many minted. Hence why in the high grades they are worth a lot more, like in the above example.

Another one is the 1931-S cent. Many were saved, since they knew it was going to be a low mintage and the reason why you can get a high grade example at a lower price, as compared to others with a much higher mintage.

And another reason is about how they were released and when. Like some Morgan dollars were kept in $1000 bags for many years and were then sold to people by the bagful. Hence they never circulated and the price dropped dramatically once that happened.

Those types of examples might apply to the nickel too?
Edited by wquinn
02/17/2012 09:47 am
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bbradford71's Avatar
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 Posted 02/17/2012  11:53 am  Show Profile   Bookmark this reply Add bbradford71 to your friends list Get a Link to this Reply
Unless I am mistaken the nickels minted in San Fran from 38-52 were not proofs, I do not think they started minting proof nickels until the early 70's
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wquinn's Avatar
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 Posted 02/17/2012  12:28 pm  Show Profile   Bookmark this reply Add wquinn to your friends list Get a Link to this Reply
Proof nickels in San Francisco started in 1968.
Edited by wquinn
02/17/2012 12:30 pm
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unholyroller's Avatar
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 Posted 02/17/2012  1:20 pm  Show Profile   Bookmark this reply Add unholyroller to your friends list Get a Link to this Reply
Didn't suggest they were proofs, I knew they weren't. Just seemed the price disparity just needed some answer to better understand why.
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wquinn's Avatar
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 Posted 02/17/2012  1:27 pm  Show Profile   Bookmark this reply Add wquinn to your friends list Get a Link to this Reply
Yeah, I thought you were just using that as an example.

And you are correct. Mintage doesn't always dictate the price, but rather the supply and demand in a specific grade. I think there is some coin book written in detail on this, but I can't remember what it is called. I think it was written in the 90s.
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