Posted 01/18/2010 5:49 pm
I would classify it as the denomination stated upon it. If it had no denomination stated upon it (such as many pre-1800 British coins), then I would classify it according to what the denomination was valued at or known as in the year it was struck. To me, the fact that the coinage was in some way illegally undervalued to start with is, for this purpose, irrelevant.
Later "official revaluations" only come into play if there's an actual counterstamp or other physical alteration of the coin at the time of the revaluation (such as for certain Brazilian and Costa Rican coins).
Later "official revaluations" only come into play if there's an actual counterstamp or other physical alteration of the coin at the time of the revaluation (such as for certain Brazilian and Costa Rican coins).
Don't say "infinitely" when you mean "very"; otherwise, you'll have no word left when you want to talk about something really infinite. - C. S. Lewis
