I am pretty sure those with extensive knowledge will be scratching their heads at the question. I was reading an older work(19th Century. I was informed by it that Spain( the Northern Christian Kingdoms) largely missed out on the Carolingian monetary reform and stuck with a, mostly unadulterated Roman system. So the Spanish ended up using eighths while the rest Of Europe was using 12ths. Is that modern understanding? (It was "news" to me)